We Scots follow Scots law which relates back to Roman Law of years gone by, but your English law appears to be quite interesting, and I'm looking for clarification, not that it affects me, but crikey, a bit more research by some of yourselves could prove to provide startling information (one way or the other) I suspect. Apparently.... All Councils in England are set up as COMPANIES/CORPORATIONS - 1. can anyone confirm that this is correct? All COURTS in England are set up as COMPANIES/CORPORATIONS. 2. can anyone confirm whether this is also correct? (Im trying to help you England chappies) This is done apparently in order to set a Jurisdiction of an "unlawful" STATUTE LEGISLATION (Not I say unlawful and not illegal - 2 completely different terms) Would I be right in thinking then that if an individual living in England receives a summons from a court in England then...